1) According to Ayt. Sistani ruling on Muta (ruling 2439). The girl can stipulate no sexual intercourse. However, she cannot say the mutah cannot fulfil some sexual pleasure.

What exactly is defined as ‘sexual pleasure’ and what are its limits?

2) Can this ruling be explained? ie. Would the be muta be valid if there is no sexual pleasure derived from it?

3) If the couple originally stipulate no sexual intercourse but later on they both consent to it.

A). Do they need to draft a new contract?

B). Can they amend the existing contract?

C). If so, would the fathers permission be required to amend the contract (if the girl is a virgin)

by

1) The term sexual pleasures is self explanatory.

2) Yes the muta is valid if there is no sexual pleasures.

3 A) They can, but not needed

B) Yes they can if they both agree

C) Yes it should be sought if that was a condition of the marriage in the first place