In Bihar ul anwar (26/514), or in Basair darajat (1/333), we have ahadiths stating that a women cannot inherit land from a man. Therefore I would like to know why seyyeda Zahra (sa) argued that she is entitled to Fadak’s inheritance?

Yes, we all know that Fadak was a gift from the lifetime of the Holy Prophet (s) and not an inheritance. But my question is, why did Fatimah (sa) reject Abu Bakr in saying that "even if [as you state Abu Bakr] it is an inheritance, I am entitled to it" while our ahadiths say that in fact no, a woman cannot inherit land from a man ?